[問題]OG(11th)44

[oguz]

In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee consumption. During this same time, there has been increasing publicity about the caffeine in coffee's adverse long-term effects on health. Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption must have been caused by consumers' awareness of the harmful effects of caffeine.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the explanation above?

(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago.
(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after significantly decreasing their coffee consumption.
(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined.
(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade.
(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations.

The answer is E
看過解釋我知道是價格上漲導致消費減少, 並不是受咖啡因影響
但當初我選的答案是D, 因為我想說是juice and tea的消費增加讓咖啡的消費減少(另有他因)
這樣的推理哪裡出錯了呢? 與(E)又有和差別?

[eggcake520]

I think the answer D is "out of scope" from the question, a typical, deceptive wrong choice in CR.
The answer E, suggesting that the decrease in consumption of coffee because of steady increase in coffee price, reflects directly to the reasoning.
From the other hand, answer E, the increase in consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas, does not necessarilly cause decrease in consumption of coffee.

open to discuss....

[oguz]

Thanks for your explanation
I can figure out why the answer D is incorrect